I’ve noticed that Muslims are going around with a silly objection lately. But sadly, it’s trapping a lot of Christians. I’ll share the objection here in hopes that we can workshop how to exegete the solution the VERY manufactured problem.
The objection: Jesus says He will not drink of the “fruit of the vine” until the eschaton, but then later drinks wine.
Matthew 26:29
“I tell you, I will not drink again of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.”
John 19:28–30
Jesus, on the cross, is given sour wine, which he tastes/drinks.
The basic inference line
- If Jesus vows to not do X, and then later does X, then he broke his vow
- Jesus vows to not drink the fruit of the vine (Matthew verse)
- Jesus drinks sour wine which is from grapes still (John)
- Therefore Jesus broke his Vow
Looking forward to your thoughts guys!