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Inspiring Philosophy Academy

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13 contributions to Inspiring Philosophy Academy
Two Powers Reference in 1 Kings?
I haven't done a whole deep dive into this text that I stumbled upon when reading my Bible this morning, but it seems to mirror this "two powers in heaven" idea that we see during the 2nd Temple period, or at least it seems to be something similar. Please let me know if anyone knows about this reference, or if anyone else has commented on it before: In 1 Kings 19:9-14, Elijah is in the wilderness, after running away from Queen Jezebel, after she ordered the death of Elijah. Elijah makes his way to a cave after the angel of Yahweh gives him food and water. The text then says: "Then the word of the LORD came to him, saying, “What are you doing here, Elijah?” He answered, “I have been very zealous for the LORD, the God of hosts, for the Israelites have forsaken your covenant, thrown down your altars, and killed your prophets with the sword. I alone am left, and they are seeking my life, to take it away.” (1 Ki 19:9–10, NRSVue) Notice here how, when Elijah is describing the situation, very explicitly to "the word of the Lord", Elijah says "...for the Israelites have forsaken YOUR covenant, thrown down YOUR altars, and killed YOUR prophets with the sword." So, we can see here that one "subject" asks Elijah a question, and Elijah responds to that subject, attributing the covenant, altars, and prophets to that same subject. The text, however, doesn't stop there: Then (very importantly) the word of the Lord tells Elijah to "...go out and stand on the mountain before the LORD, for the LORD is about to pass by." We could derive a similar 2 Powers motif from this part alone, but I think there is even stronger support if we continue. Then Elijah hears and sees a great wind, an earthquake, and a great fire, but the text says that the Lord was not in any of them. The Lord was, however, in the "...sound of sheer silence." Now, interestingly, the exchange between Elijah and the LORD is the exact same exchange that we see between the word of the LORD and Elijah: What are you doing here, Elijah?” He answered, “I have been very zealous for the LORD, the God of hosts, for the Israelites have forsaken your covenant, thrown down your altars, and killed your prophets with the sword."
The nail in the coffin for divine agency theories
The most common reply to arguments for a high Christology is an appeal to divine delegation, or agency. A Christian might say something like, "Jesus calmed the storm in Mark, who but God can do that?" The dissenter replies, "That's because Jesus was given divinely authorized power, just as Moses was when he split the Red Sea. You wouldn't call Moses God, would you?" At first glance, the symmetry seems accurate. But look beneath the surface, and a serious problem emerges. What the dissenter is really doing is anchoring their interpretive framework to adjacent Jewish agency texts, passages featuring mediatorial figures such as prophets, angels, and messengers, or even inanimate objects like the ark of the covenant. The goal is to draw a parallel between Jesus and figures who mediated the presence of YHWH without ever being YHWH. The trouble is that no such parallel actually works in totality. Now you might be thinking, "But doesn't Jesus carry out divine prerogatives, just as those other figures did?" Yes, He does, but that's a distraction from the real point of contention. The real issue is what I'll call the overextension problem. The overextension problem: Agency-only models use Jewish agency parallels to explain more than those parallels can bear. They can account for how an authorized agent represents YHWH, but they cannot, on their own, explain why Christ personally occupies the YHWH-only subject-position. That subject-position turns on something I'll call identity-emphasis. Identity-emphasis: the way a text signals which figure is being made the focal bearer of divine significance in a given passage. How do we know this is the crux? Simple: in every proposed parallel, whatever mediates YHWH's presence and authority never retains an identity of its own, it functions purely as a channel for YHWH's speech and action. So here's the logic of the agency-only model: YHWH commands → the human agent obeys and signifies the act → YHWH completes it. Take Moses at the sea. He stretches out his hand, but it is YHWH who drives the waters back:
1 like • 24d
This is so helpful! I always have trouble brining these proof texts, because that is the exact response I always get!
🔥 TONIGHT
You already know what time it is 💯 I’m thrilled to announce that tonight we have none other than the jubilant Dr. Ryan Mullins joining us to lecture. This will be in the same format as our last session with Dr. Sijuwade. Expect dynamic conversation and a live Q&A. So come ready to: Learn Think deeply Ask your questions Engage and participate Ryan will be diving into topics surrounding the nature of God, time, and much more. You won’t want to miss it. See you all tonight🔥
0 likes • May 7
I’m so bummed I can’t join I’m helping to lead an event right now. I will watch the recording though 🙌🙌
The story of Noah's Ark might need a better theodicy
Lately I’ve been thinking about the moral problems that the Bible often presents. When this topic comes up, the first thing that comes to mind is God’s command to kill the Canaanite children, and although many apologists like William Lane Craig have tried to argue that such an act was morally correct, the most adequate response is to affirm that the text is a hyperbole that does not imply that children actually died in the conquest. However, that problem can be transferred to the flood that occurred in the time of Noah, and although it can also be applied to other cases (such as the death of David’s newborn son or Sodom and Gomorrah), this is simply the clearest example that comes to mind. I want to carry out a process that I like to call “evaluation of theodicies under restricted conditions.” I’ve been thinking about this and I cannot find any that are truly satisfactory, and many of them simply seem like attempts to avoid facing the real problem and to downplay it. I would be especially interested in hearing new responses or stronger versions of existing ones, because so far none seem successful to me. First, I want to clarify the framework I am assuming in order to avoid answers that change the playing field. 1. The flood in the Book of Genesis corresponds to a real historical event (although possibly regional rather than global). 2. The event was caused or intentionally brought about by God. 3. God is morally perfect and omnipotent. 4. The flood was carried out as a punishment for human beings. 5. Children below a certain age do not have full moral responsibility, and therefore are not guilty of wrongdoing. 6. No one who is morally upright would want to kill innocent children when there is a way to avoid it. Under these conditions, I am evaluating theodicies with a very specific criterion: is the flood morally justifiable? The focus of this post is on children because it is easier to empathize with children than with animals or plants, since although they share innocence, there is debate about whether they have souls, suffer, or even consent to death, but the argument could also be extended to them.
2 likes • Apr 30
I would present these considerations: 1. For compassion to exist, suffering must exist. The same thing with redemption. 2. God has all foreknowledge of what moral decisions all moral agents will choose in their lives. 3. Consider Genesis 6:5-13 “The Lord saw that the wickedness of humans was great in the earth and that every inclination of the thoughts of their hearts was only evil continually. And the Lord was sorry that he had made humans on the earth, and it grieved him to his heart. So the Lord said, “I will blot out from the earth the humans I have created—people together with animals and creeping things and birds of the air—for I am sorry that I have made them.” But Noah found favor in the sight of the Lord. These are the descendants of Noah. Noah was a righteous man, blameless in his generation; Noah walked with God. And Noah had three sons: Shem, Ham, and Japheth. Now the earth was corrupt in God’s sight, and the earth was filled with violence. And God saw that the earth was corrupt, for all flesh had corrupted its ways upon the earth. And God said to Noah, “I have determined to make an end of all flesh, for the earth is filled with violence because of them; now I am going to destroy them along with the earth.” Notice the Lord knows that the type of corruption humans are committing is one that constitutes destruction of all humans. The children being involved in this destruction, could be because of this: the immorality from the parents being bled onto the children would have caused them to inevitably grow up to indulge in the same type of immorality as the parents. Therefore God kill’s the children to prevent this, and only allows Noah’s righteous family to live. This is not a decision humans (like us) are permitted to make, because we don’t have for-knowledge like God does. God can see the outcome and make the best decision for the specific situation. Now you could posit that God could have used a method of destruction for the children that involved less suffering. And ultimately that would just boil down to lesser and lesser sufferings until you get to just no suffering.
2 likes • May 1
@Jorge Enrique Ruiz Castro Thank you for the response. To your first rebuttal, I think what I was trying to get at in quoting Genesis was trying to show this “corruption” being described here is a corruption of a created order. The flood in turn wouldn’t necessarily be a retributive punishment of individual sins that people were committing, but instead a larger, broader judgment. This corruption would have put into question whether or not continuation of that humanity (in the time of Noah) was viable at all. Secondly, the alternative that you posited in your rebuttal (sorry a lot of it was also mentioned in your original post, I just totally forgot) was that God could have raised the children differently, possibly under the care of Noah so that they wouldn’t necessarily need to be killed. The only flaw with this alternative, is that it assumes there were at that time feasible conditions under which those same children would freely avoid the same corruption (kinda going off the first point). If God has foreknowledge of all possible hypothetical outcomes, then it is possible that there existed no such condition in which the children escaped corruption. God couldn’t manufacture this outcome either because it might interfere with free will. And also I don’t think this would be a pre-punishment for future sins, because once again, the context implies we aren’t simply working with individuals who have “sinned” but instead in a context where there is a total collapse in the created order. So the flood would be a prevention of a total collapse of creation involving agents God knows will freely participate in that collapse under any possible conditions. Also I don’t think I would hold to William Lane Craig’s position on Divine Command Theory, but I would hold to his position that Gods act of causing the flood isn’t a “worse” action based on the principle of double effect, because I would argue that it only applies to humans who don’t own life. God owns life, and so it is not a “worse” thing to reset a whole broken system, or “corrupted system” to preserve the created order.
⚠️ TONIGHT
Shout out to all of you who participated in Dr. Joshua Sijuwade’s call today 🔥 We’ll be having our regular call tonight so I hope to see all of you again. Much to go over. See you then!
0 likes • Apr 24
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