In GodLogic’s discussion with Mohammad Hijab, Hijab asked GL this question. And to many people this seemed like a slam dunk on GL. However, this couldn’t be further from the truth. Wanted to do a temperature check on your guys’ intuitions and thoughts here. What do you guys think?

I’ve noticed that Muslims are going around with a silly objection lately. But sadly, it’s trapping a lot of Christians. I’ll share the objection here in hopes that we can workshop how to exegete the solution the VERY manufactured problem. The objection: Jesus says He will not drink of the “fruit of the vine” until the eschaton, but then later drinks wine. Matthew 26:29 “I tell you, I will not drink again of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” John 19:28–30 Jesus, on the cross, is given sour wine, which he tastes/drinks. The basic inference line 1. If Jesus vows to not do X, and then later does X, then he broke his vow 2. Jesus vows to not drink the fruit of the vine (Matthew verse) 3. Jesus drinks sour wine which is from grapes still (John) 4. Therefore Jesus broke his Vow Looking forward to your thoughts guys!

It's been a long time coming, but we finally got none other than Dr. Joshua Sijuwade himself giving us a PRIVATE, never-before-seen lecture on how trinitarianism is true monotheism. This will be taking place at 6 AM PST on Thursday this week (April 23). This will be early for some of you, and perfect for others. Hope to see you there.

The most BASED week of the year, hello???

Continuing with our theme on proper religious epistemology, I have a video for you all to watch. Please do your best to take notes and bring questions you want answered for our next meeting. I will be expecting that you have them. See you Thursday!