Wait a minute if I may go backwards please forgive as my IQ is high yet I lack in the reading outfit of life
Question 🙋♂️
1john5 16-17 says
16 If anyone sees his brother sinning a sin which does not lead to death, he will ask, and he will give him life for those who commit sin not leading to death. There is sin leading to death. I do not say that he should pray about that.? (WHAT)17 all unrighteousness is sin , and there is sin not leading to death. I’m so confused 🤔 what is he saying?
But if you go back to
1john3;4-9 it says
4 whoever commits sin also commits Lawless, and sin is lawlessness. 5 and you know that he was manifested to take away our sin ., and in him there is no sin. 6 whoever abides in him does not sin. Whoever ever sins has neither seen him or known him. 7 little children., let no one deceive you. He who practice his righteousness is right, just as he is righteous. 8 he who sins is of the devil, for the devil has sinned from the beginning. For this purpose, the son of God was manifested., that he might destroy the works of the devil. 9 whoever ever has been born of God does not sin., for His seed remains in him and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God.
This contradicts itself in my understanding of abiding in him versus sin. So because I have sinned or sin Means that I am not of God? help me to understand this. Please.