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CISSP Study Group

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CISSP Practice Question (Domain 8: Software Development Security)
A development team adopts a CI/CD pipeline that auto-deploys to production upon passing unit tests. Security testing currently runs weekly in a separate environment. A recent release introduced a SQL injection flaw that reached production. As the application security lead, what is the BEST corrective action? A. Block all deployments until weekly security testing completes B. Integrate SAST and dependency scanning as gating checks within the pipeline C. Require manual security review before each production release D. Shift security testing to a post-deployment runtime monitoring tool Come back for the answer tomorrow, or study more now!
CISSP Practice Question (Domain 6: Security Assessment and Testing)
An internal audit reveals that quarterly vulnerability scans are completed on schedule, but 40% of critical findings remain unremediated past SLA. The vulnerability management team reports the metrics as "green" because scans were performed. As the CISO, what is the BEST corrective action? A. Reduce scan frequency until remediation capacity catches up B. Redefine the program metrics to measure remediation outcomes, not scan activity C. Escalate overdue findings directly to system owners' executives D. Outsource remediation to a managed security service provider Come back for the answer tomorrow, or study more now!
0 likes • 2d
@Antony Onamu Correct Answer: B. Redefine the program metrics to measure remediation outcomes, not scan activity Explanation (CISSP logic): Measuring activity instead of outcomes is a classic governance failure. A vulnerability management program exists to reduce risk, not to prove scans ran. CISSP Domain 6 stresses that metrics must align to control objectives, and KPIs should reflect risk reduction (mean time to remediate, SLA adherence) rather than process completion. Breakdown: A. Slowing scans hides the backlog and increases exposure window; treats the symptom, not the cause. B. ✅ Correct. Aligns metrics with the actual control objective and surfaces accountability. C. Escalation may be warranted later, but without fixing the metric, the program keeps reporting green while risk accumulates. D. Outsourcing transfers work, not accountability, and doesn't address the broken measurement model. Think like a manager: You get the behavior you measure. If you reward scanning, you get scans; if you reward remediation, you get risk reduction.
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0 likes • 4d
@Jonathan Perry glad to have you Sir!
0 likes • 4d
@William Serrano will that’s great! What’s the prep plan?
CISSP Practice Question (Domain 3: Security Architecture and Engineering)
A vendor proposes a new SaaS platform that processes regulated customer data. Procurement wants to sign by quarter-end, and the vendor's SOC 2 Type II report is six months old. As the security architect, what is the MOST appropriate next step? A. Accept the SOC 2 report and proceed with contract execution B. Require the vendor to complete your standard security questionnaire C. Perform a risk assessment mapped to your control requirements D. Demand a fresh penetration test before signing Come back for the answer tomorrow, or study more now!
1 like • 4d
@Dj Sahoo Correct Answer: C. Perform a risk assessment mapped to your control requirements Explanation (CISSP logic): Third-party risk management starts with understanding your own control requirements and the risk the vendor introduces, not collecting their artifacts. A SOC 2 report and questionnaires are inputs to a risk assessment, not substitutes for it. Domain 3 and Domain 1 both stress that due diligence means evaluating fit against your risk appetite before contractual commitment. Breakdown: A. A SOC 2 Type II is evidence, not a decision; accepting it without mapping to your controls skips due diligence. B. Questionnaires feed the assessment but don't replace the analysis or the risk decision. C. ✅ Correct. Establishes the control gap and informs whether to proceed, negotiate, or walk away. D. A pen test addresses technical posture, not regulatory fit, contractual terms, or residual risk ownership. Think like a manager: Vendor artifacts are inputs; your risk assessment is the decision. Sign the contract last, not first.
CISSP Practice Question (Domain 5: Identity and Access Management)
A long-tenured engineer has accumulated access across six business units through internal transfers. A recent audit flagged the account as having excessive privileges, but managers insist the access is "needed for cross-functional projects." What should you do FIRST? A. Disable unused entitlements based on the last 90 days of activity logs B. Initiate a formal access recertification with each respective data owner C. Implement a role-based access control model to replace direct grants D. Escalate to HR to enforce a job description review Come back for the answer tomorrow, or study more now!
1 like • 6d
@Ms. Marlow Correct Answer: B. Initiate a formal access recertification with each respective data owner Explanation (CISSP logic): This is privilege creep, and the fix is governance, not tooling. Data owners (not IT, not managers) are the accountable parties for authorizing access to their data. Recertification forces each owner to justify continued access against current job function, satisfying least privilege and separation of duties. Breakdown: A. Activity-based pruning is operational hygiene; it skips the authorization question and bypasses the data owner. B. ✅ Correct. Re-anchors access decisions with the accountable owners and produces audit evidence. C. RBAC is a sound long-term design, but implementation comes after you've validated what access is actually authorized. D. HR governs job descriptions, not data access authorization; wrong authority. Think like a manager: Access doesn't expire on its own. Owners authorize, recertification validates, and least privilege is a verb.
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Vincent Primiani
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Cybersecurity. The Study Group Guy.

Active 10h ago
Joined Apr 29, 2024
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