2d • Feedbacks
q52
A 46 year old man is admitted to hospital with a femoral shaft fracture that occurred suddenly whilst he was out walking his dog. On examination, there is no neurovascular deficit distal to the fracture site. He has a large firm nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid, there is no associated lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Papillary thyroid cancer
Follicular thyroid cancer
Thyroid gland lymphoma
Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Medullary thyroid cancer
3 votes
4
2 comments
q52
powered by
skool.com/mrcs-a-4911
A focused MRCS Part A course covering all high-yield topics with clear, structured teaching.
Suggested communities
Powered by